PPL Operational Procedures

Operation of aircraft: ICAO Annex 6, General requirements

1 / 22

What does the term 'ICAO' mean?

2 / 22

What types of alternate aerodromes are known?

3 / 22

Which lights are mandatory on an aircraft?

4 / 22

Which of the following documents, manuals and information shall be carried on each flight as originals or copies unless otherwise specified: 1. Receipt of fuelling 2. Original certificate of registration 3. Flight plan, if applicable 4. AFM, or equivalent

5 / 22

Evaluate the following statements: 1. A pilot in command has the authority to disembark any passenger whom he/she deems dangerous for the safety of the flight. 2. After blood donation and scuba diving there are not any restrictions to fly immediately after them.

6 / 22

What does the term 'Maintenance Release' mean?

7 / 22

What does the term 'SARPs' stand for?

8 / 22

Which of the following are correct or incorrect? 1. A flight crew can show up on duty if under the influence of alcohol. 2. A pilot is allowed to drink alcohol while on standby.

9 / 22

Evaluate the following statements: 1. A flight crew is not allowed to consume alcohol 24 hours before reporting for duty. 2. A pilot on standby is not allowed to consume any alcohol.

10 / 22

By reference to which of the following documents should the crew members of an aircraft operate?

11 / 22

Evaluate the following statements: 1. Only the operator has the authority to disembark a passenger who is a risk in the face of flight safety. 2. After blood donation or scuba diving, the flight crew must wait for a certain period of time before reporting to duty again.

12 / 22

Which of the following documents, manuals and information shall be carried on each flight as originals or copies unless otherwise specified: 1. Certificate of airworthiness 2. Noise certificate 3. Insurance 4. Maintenance release form 5. Leasing documents

13 / 22

Which of the following documents, manuals and information shall be carried on each flight as originals or copies unless otherwise specified: 1. Mass and balance sheet. 2. Procedures and visual signals information for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft. 3. Meteorological bulletins. 4. Passport. 5. Aeronautical charts.

14 / 22

What does "OM" mean?

15 / 22

What does "AOC" mean?

16 / 22

ICAO Annex 6 applicable to what?

17 / 22

What is the name of the total time from the moment an aeroplane first moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight?

18 / 22

What does "alternate aerodrome" mean?

19 / 22

What is the definition of "flight time"?

20 / 22

The definition of "an operator" is:

21 / 22

What is the name of the person requiring an AOC in order to conduct a Commercial Air Transportation operation (CAT)?

22 / 22

What does the term "PIC" mean?

Noise abatement

1 / 28

Which ICAO document should the noise abatement procedures be in accordance with?

2 / 28

Evaluate the following statements: 1. NADP 2 is used in the close vicinity of an aerodrome. 2. NADP 1 is used at a further distance from the airport.

3 / 28

Evaluate the following statements: 1. NADP 1 should be initiated below 800 ft AGL. 2. Every noise abatement procedure must have priority over flight safety.

4 / 28

How many types of departure noise abatement procedures are usually designed for an airport?

5 / 28

What is the minimum altitude for a VFR flight that must be used to fly over an unpopulated area?

6 / 28

During a departure noise abatement procedure, what is the reference height above which it can be initiated?

7 / 28

What does the term "NADP" mean?

8 / 28

When may a noise abatement procedure be disregarded:

9 / 28

Evaluate the following statements: 1. NADP 1 and 2 are arrival procedures for the sake of the noise-sensitive areas. 2. The use of reversers during landing is allowed.

10 / 28

Evaluate the following statements: 1. NADP 1 should be initiated after 800 feet AGL. 2. If flight safety is in jeopardy, then noise abatement procedures can be disregarded.

11 / 28

Except when necessary for take-off or landing, or except by permission from the appropriate authority, a VFR flight shall not be flown over congested areas of settlements, towns, or cities, or over an open air assembly of persons at a height of less than ...... above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.

12 / 28

Which sign type has a black inscription on a yellow background?

13 / 28

Refer to figure ppl-070-001. Which of the following statements about runway no.1 is correct?

14 / 28

Refer to figure ppl-070-001. Which of the following statements about runway no.2 is correct?

15 / 28

Refer to figure ppl-070-001. Which statement about the runway no.3 pre-threshold area is correct?

16 / 28

In the case of a single runway, what should a runway designation marking consist of?

17 / 28

Which sign type has a yellow inscription on a black background?

18 / 28

Refer to figure ppl-070-002. Which runway holding position pattern is shown at no.1?

19 / 28

Refer to figure ppl-070-002. Which runway holding position pattern is shown in no. 2?

20 / 28

What is the ICAO standard colour for the taxiway markings?

21 / 28

Refer to figure ppl-070-003. What is the area marked by the "A" in the figure?

22 / 28

Refer to figure ppl-070-003. What does "B" mean in the attached figure?

23 / 28

Where are the intermediate runway holding positions established?

24 / 28

In the case of dual parallel runways, what should a runway designation marking consist of?

25 / 28

The ICAO standard colour for runway markings is?

26 / 28

Refer to figure ppl-070-004. What sign is represented by no.1?

27 / 28

In the case of three parallel runways, what should a runway designation marking consist of?

28 / 28

Refer to figure ppl-070-004. What is represented by no.2?

Fire or smoke

1 / 16

Why must a Halon fire extinguisher be used with caution when used on a cockpit fire?

2 / 16

What is the extinguishing procedure for a carburettor fire if the engine has already started?

3 / 16

While extinguishing the fire, extinguisher should be:

4 / 16

In the case of an electrical fire:

5 / 16

What must be done in the case of an engine fire during start-up?

6 / 16

There is electrical smoke in the cockpit, the crew manages to locate its source. What should they do?

7 / 16

During which phase of flight is a carburettor fire likely to occur?

8 / 16

Which class of fire contains combustible, fibrous materials like rubber or wood?

9 / 16

What is the extinguishing procedure for a carburettor fire, if the engine has not yet started?

10 / 16

What are the effects of smoke in the cockpit / cabin? 1. Irritation to the eyes 2. Hypoxia 3. Nausea 4. Asphyxiation 5. Loss of hearing 6. Memory impairment

11 / 16

Why should water fire extinguishers never be used in a cockpit fire?

12 / 16

What does a carburettor fire extinguishing procedure depend on?

13 / 16

Which fire extinguishing agent is usually used on aircraft?

14 / 16

Which of the following are possible engine fire-causing factors? 1. Overheated components 2. Type of the fuel 3. Smoking 4. Cracked engine cowling 5. Electrical arcing 6. Outside air temperature

15 / 16

What actions should be taken by the flight crew in the event of smoke in the cockpit of a small, light aicraft, when the source is unknown?

16 / 16

Why is it important to be aware of fire classifications?

Windshear and microburst

1 / 12

During the approach phase you encounter windshear, resulting in a decreased headwind. the correct countermeasure taken by the pilot is:

2 / 12

During a horizontal windshear with decreasing headwind, the IAS will __(1)__ and, lift will __(2)__.

3 / 12

Below which altitude are downdraughts more likely to occur?

4 / 12

In which phases of flight is windshear the most dangerous?

5 / 12

You experience horizontal windshear with an increasing headwind, the IAS will __(1)__, and lift will (2) ___.

6 / 12

Evaluate the following statements: 1. During an approach, encountering a microburst, and then flying a missed approach is more dangerous than landing the aircraft as soon as possible, even if the approach is de-stabilised. 2. If an aircraft encounters an increasing headwind during approach, it results in climbing above the glide path.

7 / 12

Which of the following phenomena are associated with windshear? 1. Thunderstorm 2. Nimbostratus 3. Virga 4. Lenticularis 5. Airports surrounded by hills 6. Altocumulus clouds

8 / 12

What is the correct sequence of actions for handling or recovering from a microburst encounter?

9 / 12

What types of windshear are known to pilots?

10 / 12

Evaluate the following statements: 1. During an approach encountering a microburst, flying a missed approach is the safest way of escaping the danger of a microburst. 2. If an aircraft encounters an increasing tailwind during an approach, the aircraft will climb above the glide path.

11 / 12

What is the typical sequence of events during a microburst?

12 / 12

Which weather phenomena is mostly associated with windshear?

Wake turbulence

1 / 26

What separation should be maintained during departure from the same position, between a light aircraft following a medium aircraft?

2 / 26

Which ICAO wake turbulence category includes aircraft with a maximum take-off mass (MTOM) of more than 7,000 kg but less than 136,000 kg?

3 / 26

What separation must be maintained during departure from an intermediate point on the runway, between a light aircraft following a heavy aircraft?

4 / 26

Define wake turbulence?

5 / 26

Evaluate the following statements: 1. A light wind is beneficial in dispersing wake turbulence over the runway. 2. Wake turbulence starts as soon as the nose gear lifts off.

6 / 26

Evaluate the following statements: 1. Wake turbulence generated by wingtip vortices begins as soon as the main gear lifts off. 2. The dispersing of the wingtip vortices (wake turbulence) over a runway by a strong wind is beneficial.

7 / 26

What distance should be kept between a medium following a medium aircraft during landing?

8 / 26

Wake turbulence separation is applied in aircraft operations with parallel runways that are separated by less than:

9 / 26

What is the MTOM of a "Heavy" wake turbulence category aircraft?

10 / 26

What is the MTOM of a "Medium" wake turbulence category aircraft?

11 / 26

By which of the following methods are aircraft separated to avoid wake turbulence? 1. Time 2. Distance 3. Different QNH settings 4. Radio altimeters

12 / 26

What separation is applied during departure from the same position, between a medium aircraft following a heavy aircraft?

13 / 26

What separation is maintained during departure from an intermediate point on the runway, between a light aircraft following a medium aircraft?

14 / 26

Which ICAO wake turbulence categories have a MTOM of 136,000 kg and more?

15 / 26

What separation must be maintained during departure from the same position, between a light aircraft following a heavy aircraft?

16 / 26

What separation must be maintained during departure from an intermediate point on the runway, between a medium aircraft following a heavy aircraft?

17 / 26

What separation must be maintained between a light aircraft following a medium aircraft during landing?

18 / 26

What separation must be maintained between a heavy aircraft following a medium aircraft during landing?

19 / 26

Which ICAO wake turbulence categories have an MTOM of 7,000 kg or less?

20 / 26

Which of the following situations will generate the biggest wake turbulence?

21 / 26

What separation must be maintained between a medium aircraft following a heavy aircraft during landing?

22 / 26

Within how many ft vertical separation below the preceding aircraft should the pilot be alerted of wake turbulence?

23 / 26

What is the MTOM of light wake turbulence category aircraft?

24 / 26

What separation must be maintained between a light aircraft following a heavy aircraft during landing?

25 / 26

When is wake turbulence the most hazardous to aicraft?

26 / 26

What separation must be maintained between a heavy aircraft following a heavy aircraft during landing?

Emergency and precautionary landings

1 / 13

In the event of an emergency landing, what is the first action the pilot must take once the aircraft has come to a complete stop?

2 / 13

Following an emergency landing, what should the pilot in command (PIC) do:

3 / 13

Evaluate the following statements: 1. The pilot's responsibility is to brief the crew and the passengers in case of an emergency situation. 2. Passengers can exit the aircraft freely as they will, after an emergency landing.

4 / 13

In the event of a precautionary landing, who has to be notified first?

5 / 13

Evaluate the following statements: 1. An engine failure on a four-engined aircraft is not an emergency situation at all. 2. A sudden depressurization is an emergency situation even if the aircraft is still maintaining level flight.

6 / 13

Which of the following items may help the passengers in an emergency situation?

7 / 13

The primary reason for briefing passengers before an emergency landing is?

8 / 13

For an emergency landing on land, the gear should be __(1)__ and, on water the gear should be __(2)__.

9 / 13

If an aircraft must be ditched (evacuated on water), what is the best action regarding life jackets?

10 / 13

What doesthe term "ditching" mean?

11 / 13

How should an aircraft commence a ditching procedure?

12 / 13

When should an emergency evacuation be initiated after an emergency landing?

13 / 13

The aircraft has landed off-airport (made a forced landing) and there is a suspected fuel leak, what is the most appropriate action?

Contaminated runways

1 / 32

Which braking action type gives a braking coefficient of 0.38?

2 / 32

Which type of runway is described as a runway which is neither wet nor contaminated and, it also has good braking action?

3 / 32

Which of the following braking coefficients are considered to be "Medium/Poor" braking action?

4 / 32

Which of the following phenomena are considered to render a runway as "contaminated"? 1. Wet ice 2. Ice 3. Standing water below 2 mm 4. Compacted snow 5. 3.5 mm of loose snow

5 / 32

Which of the following braking action codes is related to a "Medium/Good" braking action?

6 / 32

Which of the following braking coefficients is considered to be a "Medium" braking action?

7 / 32

What is the greatest danger on a contaminated runway?

8 / 32

Which of the following braking coefficients is considered to be a "Good" braking action?

9 / 32

Which of the following factors affect aquaplaning the most?

10 / 32

Which of the following braking coefficients is considered to be a "Poor" braking action?

11 / 32

Which braking action type has a braking coefficient of 0.40 and above?

12 / 32

Which type of snow is described as: "Snow which if compressed stays together and after that further compression is not possible, and breaks off into lumps"?

13 / 32

Which braking action type has a braking coefficient of 0.32?

14 / 32

Which type of runway is described as: "A runway which is wet but with less than a contaminated runway, and it gives reflection"?

15 / 32

Which of the following braking coefficients is considered to be a "Medium" to good braking action?

16 / 32

Which of the following braking actions has a braking action code of 4?

17 / 32

Which of the following braking action codes is related to "Medium/Poor" braking action?

18 / 32

Which of the following braking action codes is related to a "Poor" braking action?

19 / 32

Which of the following braking actions has a braking action code of 3?

20 / 32

A runway's surface is considered to be contaminated when it is above?

21 / 32

Which type of runway is described as: "The runway is moist, but it does not give a reflection"?

22 / 32

A wet runway is a runway which:

23 / 32

Which of the following braking action codes is referenced to a "Medium" braking action?

24 / 32

Which of the following braking actions has a code of 5?

25 / 32

Which of the following braking actions has a code of 1?

26 / 32

Which of the following braking action codes is related to an unreliable braking action?

27 / 32

A damp runway is a runway which:

28 / 32

Which of the following braking action(s) has a code of 2?

29 / 32

Which braking action type has a braking action coefficient of 0.28?

30 / 32

Which of the following braking action codes is related to "Good braking" action?

31 / 32

Which of the following braking action(s) has a braking action code of 9?

32 / 32

Which braking action type has a braking action coefficient of 0.25 or below?