PPL Airlaw & ATC Procedures 01

The Convention on international civil aviation (Chicago) Doc. 7300/6

1 / 28

Complete the following definition of "Dual registration": An aircraft __(1)__ be validly registered in more than one State. Its registration __(2)__ be changed from one State to another.

2 / 28

The Chicago Convention in 1944 established the core principles permitting the international transport, outlined in a document of 96 articles defining methods for its regulation and standardisation. For the administration of these principles the ICAO was formed, as a specialised agency of the United Nations. This Convention shall be applicable:

3 / 28

When may a Contracting State prohibit or restrict certain areas of its airspace for all traffic?

4 / 28

What does the territory of a state include? 1. includes land areas; and 2. does not include territorial waters adjacent thereto; under sovereignty, suzerainty, protection or mandate of such state.

5 / 28

Which state shall provide the nationality of the aircraft?

6 / 28

The aims and objectives of the ICAO are: 1. Prevent the development of airways, airports, and air navigation facilities for international civil aviation. 2. Encourage the design and operation of aircraft for peaceful purposes. 3. Insure the safe and orderly growth of international civil aviation throughout the world. 4. Facilitate the waste caused by unreasonable competition.

7 / 28

On an aircraft engaged in an international air navigation flight, evaluate the following statements: 1. the nationality shall not be indicated; 2. registration marks shall be indicated.

8 / 28

What is "Dual registration"? 1. the aircraft can be registered in more than one state; 2. the registration may be changed from one state to another.

9 / 28

Among others, what are the aims and objectives of ICAO? 1. to insure the safe and orderly growth of international civil aviation throughout the world; 2. prevent the economic waste caused by unreasonable competition.

10 / 28

What are the aims and objectives of ICAO? 1. Insure the safe and orderly growth of international civil aviation throughout the world. 2. Prevent economic waste caused by unreasonable competition. 3. Promote the safety of flight in international air navigation. 4. Avoid discrimination between Contracting States.

11 / 28

Which Convention was issued in 1944?

12 / 28

What are the aims and objectives of ICAO? 1. Consider that the needs of the people of the world for safe, well developed, efficient and economical air transport are negligible. 2. Insure that each Contracting States' rights are fully respected and every contracting state has the opportunity to operate international airlines. 3. Promote the safety of flight in international air navigation. 4. Promote generally all aspects of civil aeronautics.

13 / 28

Amongst others, what are the aims and objectives of ICAO: 1. to prevent the development of airways, airports, and air navigation facilities for international civil aviation; 2. avoid discrimination between Contracting States.

14 / 28

What is the name given to the two main bodies of ICAO?

15 / 28

To who does ICAO set standards and recommended practices for?

16 / 28

The contracting states recognize that ...... has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.

17 / 28

The territory of a state: 1. does not include land areas; and 2. includes territorial waters adjacent thereto; under sovereignty, suzerainty, protection or mandate of such state.

18 / 28

Which Convention has established the ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organisation)?

19 / 28

Which of the following is fulfilled over the territory of the Contracting States?

20 / 28

Which of the following documents shall be on board an aircraft which engaged in international air navigation? 1. Certification of registration 2. Certification of airworthiness 3. Appropriate licenses for each crew member 4. Aircraft journey log book 5. If equipped with a radio, its licenses 6. Navigation log 7. If carries passengers, their names, and location of embarking and disembarking 8. If it carries cargo, manifest and detailed declarations of the cargo 9. Performance calculations

21 / 28

An aircraft which engaged in international air navigations: 1. shall carry on board the certification of registration; 2. shall not carry the certification of airworthiness.

22 / 28

Among others, the aims and objectives of the ICAO: 1. encourage the design and operation of aircraft for peaceful purposes; 2. meet the requirements of the people of the world for safe, well-developed, efficient and economical air transport.

23 / 28

What is considered as the "territory of a state"?

24 / 28

What is the name of the organisation that was established by the Chicago Convention?

25 / 28

Evaluate the following statements on the Chicago Convention: 1. shall be applicable to state aircraft; 2. shall not be applicable to civil aircraft.

26 / 28

What are the corresponding displays of marks of an aircraft which are engaged in international air navigation?

27 / 28

An aircraft which is engaged in international air navigation: 1. shall not carry on board the appropriate licenses of the crew; 2. shall not carry on board the journey log book of the aircraft.

28 / 28

Which document may be considered satisfactory evidence of an aircraft's appropriate airworthiness requirements, when the aircraft moved from the Contracting State and entered on the register of another Contracting State?

Annex 8: Airworthiness of aircraft

1 / 9

The definition of airworthy is most correctly described as:

2 / 9

Which state shall provide the issuance, renewal and validity of the Certification of Airworthiness?

3 / 9

Which statement describes the definition of a helicopter?

4 / 9

Evaluate the following statements: 1. The fireproof parts have the capability to withstand the application of heat by flame for a period of 15 minutes; 2. The fire-resistant parts have the capability to withstand the application of heat by flame for a period of 5 minutes.

5 / 9

The State of Registry shall provide the issuance of the:

6 / 9

What is the definition of a State of Registry?

7 / 9

Any engine whose failure gives the most adverse effect on the aircraft handling characteristics is called the:

8 / 9

Evaluate the following statements: 1. The fireproof parts have the capability to withstand the application of heat by flame for a period of 5 minutes; 2. The fire-resistant parts have the capability to withstand the application of heat by flame for a period of 15 minutes.

9 / 9

Evaluate the following statements: 1. The State of Registry shall provide the issuance of the Certification of Airworthiness; 2. When an aircraft has a valid Certificate of Airworthiness issued by a Contracting State and entered on the register of another Contracting State, the new State of Registry shall not consider the previous Certificate of Airworthiness as satisfactory evidence about the aircraft's appropriate airworthiness requirements, for issuing a new Certificate of Airworthiness.

Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks

1 / 11

What shall the registration mark consist of?

2 / 11

Which of the following shall not be a registration mark of an aircraft?

3 / 11

A nationality or common mark and registration mark consist of:

4 / 11

Where on the wings of heavier-than-air aircraft shall registration marks be located?

5 / 11

Which statement below describes the definition of an aeroplane?

6 / 11

Any machine that can gain its support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth's surface. This definition describes the:

7 / 11

Which statement below best describes the definition of an aircraft?

8 / 11

"An aircraft, which is heavier than air, and power-driven, and deriving its buoyancy force chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed." What does this describe?

9 / 11

A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air on one or more power-driven rotors on the substantially vertical axis. This is the definition of:

10 / 11

The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:

11 / 11

Which of the following could be a registration mark of an aircraft?

Annex 1: Personell Licensing

1 / 21

Regarding solo flight time, what is the minimum requirement for applicants to obtain a PPL?

2 / 21

What is the minimum requirement for a student pilot to fly solo with regard to Medical Assessment?

3 / 21

Refer to the following ICAO definition: "Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to the intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft" is called:

4 / 21

What is the flight plan?

5 / 21

Which of the following statements does describe best the error?

6 / 21

What can be extended up to 45 days after the date of expiry, at the discretion of the Licensing Authority?

7 / 21

Aged between 40 and 50, what is the validity period of the Class 2 Medical?

8 / 21

What is the requirement for the Private Pilot License with regard to the Medical Assessment?

9 / 21

Refer to EASA Aircrew Regulations. Applicants for a PPL(A) shall have completed at least __(1)__ of flight instruction in aeroplanes or TMGs, __(2)__ of which may have been completed in an FSTD, including: at least 25 hours of dual flight instruction; and 10 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 5 hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least 1 cross-country flight of at least 270 km (150 NM), during which full stop landings at 2 aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made.

10 / 21

Which license can be obtained when the applicant is 17 years of age?

11 / 21

According to the flight time, which of the followings shall be applied to aeroplanes?

12 / 21

What is the role of the operational personnel who is charged with the safe conduct of the flight?

13 / 21

"An action or inaction by the operational personnel, that leads to deviation from the pre-determined plan, or the operational person's expectation or intention". This is the definition of:

14 / 21

Who is the pilot-in-command?

15 / 21

What is the definition of airmanship?

16 / 21

What is the validity period of the Class 2 Medical for a PPL holder?

17 / 21

"The total time from the moment when the aircraft moves for the purpose of take-off until the moment when the aircraft finally comes to rest at the end of the flight". What is this definition?

18 / 21

What is the minimum age for a Private Pilot License?

19 / 21

Class 2 Medical is a requirement to issue which license?

20 / 21

Evaluate the following statements: 1. The Private Pilot License can be obtained after the 17th birthday of the applicant; 2. The validity period of the Class 2 Medical Certificate for all private pilots is 24 months.

21 / 21

After what age shall be the validity period of the Class 2 Medical reduced to 24 months?

Annex 2 Rules of the Air

1 / 153

What lights shall be displayed on all aircraft from sunset to sunrise or any other period if prescribed by the appropriate authority?

2 / 153

What is the movement area?

3 / 153

When two aircraft converge approximately on the same level, generally which aircraft shall give way to the other?

4 / 153

Which type of flight plan is described as the following: "A Flight plan as filed with an ATS unit by the pilot, or a designated representative, without any subsequent changes"?

5 / 153

In case of danger of collision between two aircraft taxiing on the movement area of an aerodrome the following shall apply: 1. when two aircraft are approaching head on, or approximately so, each shall stop or where practicable alter its course to the left so as to keep well clear; 2. when two aircraft are on a converging course, the one which has the other on its left shall give way; 3. an aircraft which is being overtaken by another aircraft shall have the right-of-way and the overtaking aircraft shall keep well clear of the other aircraft.

6 / 153

In airspace within which an ATC clearance is required, what shall the pilot do in case of deterioration of the weather below VMC?

7 / 153

Describe the right-of-way rule:

8 / 153

What is considered air traffic?

9 / 153

The acronym VFR is the shortened version of:

10 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-001. What is the meaning of the signal, shown by the marshaller?

11 / 153

In which area may an SVFR flight be flown?

12 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-002. What does a horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal indicate?

13 / 153

Which direction shall an aircraft alter when another aircraft approaches from the opposite direction and there is a danger of collision?

14 / 153

Cleared for take-off for the aircraft which is on ground and cleared to land for aircraft which is in flight shall be signed by:

15 / 153

You are on a VFR flight in airspace E, at an altitude of 12000 ft AMSL. The corresponding VMC minima are:

16 / 153

Who is responsible for the safe conduct of a flight?

17 / 153

Which of the following is measured from mean sea level (MSL)?

18 / 153

What are the signals if an aircraft has difficulties and is compelled to land without requiring immediate assistance?

19 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-003. What is the meaning of the signal, shown by the marshaller?

20 / 153

What is the definition of altitude?

21 / 153

All traffic in the manoeuvering area and all aircraft in the vicinity of the aerodrome is considered as:

22 / 153

Which of the following statements is correct regarding converging aircraft?

23 / 153

Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft?

24 / 153

When two aircraft approaching approximately head-on, why shall they alter their heading to the right?

25 / 153

Regarding signals for aerodrome traffic, what is "a series of green flashes" intended to signal?:

26 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-004. What is the meaning of the signal, as shown by the marshaller?

27 / 153

Refer to the air-ground signals during search and rescue operations. Which of the following signals made by an aircraft means that the ground signals have been noted and understood? (applicable to daylight operations)

28 / 153

A flight plan shall contain: 1. alternate aerodrome(s) and fuel endurance; 2. the total number of persons on board, emergency survival equipment and other information.

29 / 153

What is the correct action from the pilot in case of total communication failure if the only option is to remain in VFR?

30 / 153

What shall a flight plan contain? 1. Aircraft identification 2. Flight rules and type of flight 3. Number and type of aircraft and wake turbulence category 4. Equipment 5. Departure aerodrome 6. Estimated off-block time

31 / 153

Regarding signals for aerodrome traffic, the series of white flashes is intended to sign:

32 / 153

When no air traffic services unit exists at the arrival aerodrome, the arrival report, when required,...

33 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-005. A set of two digits displayed vertically at or near the aerodrome control tower indicates:

34 / 153

When shall an aircraft either repeatedly switch on and off the landing lights or the navigation lights?

35 / 153

For which traffic shall the ATC clearances be applied?

36 / 153

What shall a pilot do if the weather has deteriorated below VMC within a control zone?

37 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-006. What is the meaning of the signal, shown by the marshaller?

38 / 153

Which of the following are the parts of the arrival report? 1. Aircraft identification 2. Departure aerodrome 3. Off-block time 4. Destination aerodrome (only in case of diversion) 5. Arrival aerodrome 6. Time of arrival 7. Name of the pilot-in-command 8. Number of passengers

39 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-007. What is the meaning of the signal shown by the two marshallers?

40 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-008. What is the meaning of the signal, shown by the marshaller?

41 / 153

Arrival reports shall contain: 1. aircraft identification and departure aerodrome; 2. off-block time and destination aerodrome (only in the case of diversion).

42 / 153

What is the case when there is no need to submit a flight plan prior to departure?

43 / 153

The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object, considered as a point, measured from mean sea level (MSL), is called:

44 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-012. A horizontal white dumb-bell indicates:

45 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-009. What does: "a horizontal white dumb-bell with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft across each circular portion of the dumb-bell" indicate?

46 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-010. The letter C displayed vertically in black against a yellow background indicates:

47 / 153

If an aircraft is intercepted, on which communication frequency must radiocommunication be established?

48 / 153

What is the minimum height to be flown for a VFR flight over congested areas?

49 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-011. What is the meaning of the signal, shown by the marshaller?

50 / 153

When a pilot transmits 3 times the word MAYDAY, the aircraft is in:

51 / 153

When an aircraft is intercepted what shall it do to indicate that it is in distress?

52 / 153

In which airspace VFR flights are not allowed?

53 / 153

What shall be followed in case of VFR flights from sunset to sunrise or such other period between sunset and sunrise as may be prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority?

54 / 153

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. When two aircraft approaching head-on on the movement area each shall alter its heading to the left 2. The aircraft coming from the right shall give way to the other aircraft. 3. An aircraft being overtaken has the right-of-way and the other aircraft shall keep well clear of another aircraft.

55 / 153

What shall a pilot say when the aircraft is in an urgent situation?

56 / 153

The minimum heights to be flown for VFR flights: 1. over congested areas 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within the radius of 300 m from the aircraft; 2. elsewhere at a height not less than 500 ft above ground or water.

57 / 153

What is the definition of a danger area?

58 / 153

In case of interception, the intercepted aircraft rocking wings and flashing navigation lights at irregular intervals? What does that sign mean?

59 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-013. What is the meaning of the signal shown by the marshaller?

60 / 153

Regarding signals for aerodrome traffic, the series of red flashes is intended to sign:

61 / 153

What code shall be set on the transponder in the case of interception?

62 / 153

What is a controlled flight?

63 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-014. What does a horizontally placed white or orange landing "T" indicate?

64 / 153

Which lights shall be displayed always intended to indicate engine start, running engine, movement of aircraft, or shall be displayed during the flight?

65 / 153

Regarding signals for aerodrome traffic, the steady red light is intended to sign:

66 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-015. What is the meaning of the signal, shown by the marshaller?

67 / 153

Which of the following statements is correct regarding converging aircraft?

68 / 153

What is the minimum time that a flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a flight to be provided air traffic control or air traffic advisory?

69 / 153

In which airspaces shall the pilot remain clear of clouds with the surface in sight?

70 / 153

What is required to enter the control zone, traffic zone or pattern of an aerodrome if the ceiling is below 1500 ft or ground visibility is less than 5 km?

71 / 153

What is the minimum height to be flown for a VFR flight over outside congested areas?

72 / 153

When an aircraft is intercepting another aircraft, what shall they do to indicate the interception?

73 / 153

What is the definition of a prohibited area?

74 / 153

If an aircraft may proceed after an interception, what shall the aircraft do?

75 / 153

Regarding lights to be displayed, a pilot shall be permitted to switch off or reduce the intensity of any flashing lights, if they: 1. adversely affect the satisfactory performance of duties. 2. subject an outside observer to harmful dazzle.

76 / 153

What is the difference between current and filed flight plans?

77 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-016. What does a right-hand arrow of conspicuous colour indicate?

78 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-017. What does a horizontal red square panel with yellow diagonals indicate?

79 / 153

When may a pilot depart from the minimum prescribed heights over congested areas of cities, towns or settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons?

80 / 153

Return for landing for aircraft in flight and cleared to taxi for aircraft on the ground shall be signalled by:

81 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-018. What does a double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicate?

82 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-019. What is the meaning of the signal, shown by the marshaller?

83 / 153

What is the name of the permission granted by the air traffic controller (ATC)?

84 / 153

What is considered aerodrome traffic?

85 / 153

The shortened version of visual meteorological conditions is:

86 / 153

Except when a clearance is obtained from an air traffic control unit, VFR flights shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the ceiling is less than (1) ___, or when the ground visibility is less than (2) ___ km.

87 / 153

Refer to figures ppl-010-020 and ppl-010-021. Crosses that are of a single contrasting colour, yellow or white indicate on runways and taxiways:

88 / 153

All aircraft in flight or operating in the manoeuvering area of an aerodrome is considered as:

89 / 153

Regarding signals for aerodrome traffic, the steady green light is intended to sign:

90 / 153

The air traffic control clearance is:

91 / 153

The flight rule which may be flown when cleared by the ATC in a control zone below VMC?

92 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-022. What is the meaning of the signal shown by the marshaller?

93 / 153

Select the correct statement regarding "converging aircraft"?

94 / 153

When shall a flight plan be submitted?

95 / 153

The statement "That part of a movement area intended for the landing or take-off of aircraft" is the definition of:

96 / 153

From what level is the flight visibility minima 8km in Class A, B, C, D, E, F, G airspaces?

97 / 153

You are on a VFR flight in airspace G, at an altitude of 8000 ft AMSL and 7000 ft above ground. The corresponding VMC minima are:

98 / 153

What is the manoeuvring area?

99 / 153

Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron for the aircraft which is in flight and return to starting point on the aerodrome for the aircraft which is on ground shall be signed by:

100 / 153

What is the clearance limit?

101 / 153

In case of an in-flight flight plan, a flight plan shall be submitted ...... before the aircraft reaches the intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area or the point of crossing an airway or advisory route.

102 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-023. What is the meaning of the signal, shown by the marshaller?

103 / 153

Flight plan which is including changes, if any, brought about by subsequent clearances. This describes which flight plan?

104 / 153

What is the definition of a restricted area?

105 / 153

In flight, which aircraft shall have right-of-way?

106 / 153

What is considered a ceiling?

107 / 153

Generally, how shall a flight plan be closed?

108 / 153

Which of the following aircraft has the right-of-way?

109 / 153

Which of the following is considered to be a distress signal? 1. Word MAYDAY 3 times spoken on radiotelephony 2. Word MAYDAY in Morse Code 3. Word MAYDAY via data link transmission 4. Rockets or shells throwing red lights, fired one at a time at short intervals 5. A parachute flare showing a red light 6. Aircraft rocking its wings

110 / 153

What is considered to be radiotelephony in aviation?

111 / 153

What is the difference between VFR and SVFR flights?

112 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-024. What is the meaning of the signal shown by the marshaller? (Note: slow movement)

113 / 153

What is the correct acknowledgement by an aircraft during the hours of darkness are the following:

114 / 153

When can a pilot fly under Special VFR?

115 / 153

The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control (ATC) clearance is the:

116 / 153

A flight plan shall contain: 1. Cruising speed(s) 2. Cruising level(s) 3. Route to be followed 4. Estimated time of reaching waypoints 5. Destination aerodrome and total estimated elapsed time 6. Frequencies of the appropriate ATS units

117 / 153

Which aircraft has the right-of-way on the manoeuvering area?

118 / 153

When shall aircraft alter their heading to the right if there is a danger of collision?

119 / 153

A red pyrotechnic on an aerodrome is intended to signal:

120 / 153

What is the difference between distress and urgency regarding radiotelephony?

121 / 153

Which personnel shall not be under the influence of any psychoactive substance?

122 / 153

What is the radius from the aircraft which is the reference to measure the minimum height to be flown for VFR flights over congested areas?

123 / 153

What a pilot shall do if the weather has deteriorated below VMC and no clearance can be obtained?

124 / 153

What is the first action that the pilot shall do when a communication failure occurs?

125 / 153

What type of communication is required to operate an aircraft within controlled airspace?

126 / 153

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling for aircraft which is in flight and stop for the aircraft which is on ground shall be signalled by:

127 / 153

Refer to figure ppl-010-025. What is the meaning of the signal, shown by the marshaller? (Note: abrupt/fast movement)

128 / 153

Before providing an ATS surveillance service to an aircraft, identification shall be established and the pilot informed. Thereafter, identification shall be maintained until termination of the ATS surveillance service. If the identification is lost, what shall be the correct action towards the pilot?

129 / 153

Which of the following items shall contain the initial call to the aerodrome control tower? 1. Designation of the station called 2. Call sign 3. Name of the PIC 4. Position 5. Number of people on board 6. Additional required items by ATS authority

130 / 153

What is the meaning of runway-in-use?

131 / 153

What is the appropriate phrase for altitude change?

132 / 153

Regarding ATC clearances if it is not suitable to the PIC, then what shall he/she do?

133 / 153

Which unit shall provide area control service?

134 / 153

What is assumed when the separation is maintained between an aircraft having communication failure and other aircraft, if the first fails to indicate that it is able to receive the transmission, in case of visual meteorological conditions?

135 / 153

What are the forms of transmission of information?

136 / 153

What is the correct phrase when the ATC instructs the pilot to wait at a point or intersection?

137 / 153

What will the pilot hear from ATC when the certain action is required when convenient for the pilot?

138 / 153

Which of the following is an unidentified aircraft?

139 / 153

In case of arriving aircraft, when shall the control of the aircraft be transferred from the approach control service to the aerodrome control service?

140 / 153

Regarding flight plans, what shall be the maximum time to submit a flight plan before the estimated off-block time?

141 / 153

What are the appropriate phrases for an action regarding altitude changes at a specific time or place?

142 / 153

What are the forms of air traffic services?

143 / 153

With regards to priority, which aircraft has priority over other aircraft?

144 / 153

What is an advisory airspace?

145 / 153

In what cases shall general calls be used?

146 / 153

What is the correct phrase which is used in the case of transferring control or frequency change?

147 / 153

For how long shall the special air reports be disseminated?

148 / 153

Which unit shall provide area control service?

149 / 153

Complete the following sentence according to ICAO Doc 4444 regulations: Separation shall be provided between ...(1)... cleared to execute a visual approach and ...(2)...

150 / 153

What are the purposes of information and clearances issued by the aerodrome control tower? (Choose the correct and most complete statement)

151 / 153

The ATS surveillance service shall: 1. not inform the pilot when identification is established; and 2. identification shall be maintained until the termination of the ATS surveillance service.

152 / 153

The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:

153 / 153

Refer to a visual approach. Who is responsible for ensuring that the spacing from a preceding aircraft of a heavier wake turbulence category is acceptable?

Secondary surveillance radar transponder operating procedures (including ICAO Doc. 7030)

1 / 13

When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder what shall the pilot do?

2 / 13

When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference the PIC shall set following code on the transponder:

3 / 13

In case of emergency, what code shall the pilot set on the transponder?

4 / 13

What must the pilot NOT do with the transponder, unless instructed by ATC?

5 / 13

What shall the ATC say when requesting the aircraft to transmit the pressure altitude?

6 / 13

What shall the ATC say when requesting the operation of the ident feature on the transponder?

7 / 13

What shall the pilot do when ATC requests "CONFIRM SQUAWK"?

8 / 13

What shall the ATC say to request the pilot to reselect the assigned mode and code of the transponder?

9 / 13

What is required by ATC if the pilot hears: "ADVISE TRANSPONDER CAPABILITY"?

10 / 13

If the ATC uses phraseology: CONFIRM SQUAWK, what shall the pilot do?

11 / 13

What shall the ATC say to instruct the pilot to set the transponder?

12 / 13

In case of losing two-way communication, the pilot shall code on the transponder:

13 / 13

Except in case of emergency, communication failure or unlawful interference the pilot shall: